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CBSE
Class 11
Biotechnology
Biotechnology
Tools and Technologies

Question Bank

Practice Hub

Question Bank: Tools and Technologies

This chapter discusses essential tools and techniques in biotechnology that facilitate research and experimentation.

Structured practice
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Practice chapter questions in a cleaner, exam-ready flow

Start with curated question sets, move into full module views when needed, and keep discovering related practice without losing your place in the chapter.

Question Bank - Tools and Technologies

View all (163)
Q1.

What is the primary purpose of electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068935
View explanation
Q2.

In gel electrophoresis, which type of gel is commonly used for separating DNA fragments?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068936
View explanation
Q3.

What role does the tracking dye play in electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068937
View explanation
Q4.

When performing electrophoresis, which direction do negatively charged particles move?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068938
View explanation
Q5.

What is the significance of using polyacrylamide gel in electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068939
View explanation
Q6.

In which scenario would you prefer using agarose gel over polyacrylamide gel for electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068940
View explanation
Q7.

What is the expected result if no loading dye is added prior to running a gel electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068941
View explanation
Q8.

Which of the following factors affects the migration speed of DNA in electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068942
View explanation
Q9.

Which stain is commonly used to visualize DNA in agarose gels after electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068943
View explanation
Q10.

What happens to DNA fragments of different sizes during gel electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068944
View explanation
Q11.

What is the primary purpose of centrifugation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068945
View explanation
Q12.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the electrophoresis buffer?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068946
View explanation
Q13.

In differential centrifugation, what primarily affects the sedimentation rate of particles?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068947
View explanation
Q14.

What is the significance of using a control sample during electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068948
View explanation
Q15.

What is density-gradient centrifugation primarily used for?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068949
View explanation
Q16.

In the context of protein separation, which form of electrophoresis is commonly used?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068950
View explanation
Q17.

Which type of centrifuge would you likely use for separating organelles from a cell extract?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068951
View explanation
Q18.

What is one of the key advantages of using capillary electrophoresis over traditional methods?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068952
View explanation
Q19.

At what speed does ultracentrifugation typically operate?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068953
View explanation
Q20.

Which factor is least likely to affect the resolution of DNA bands during electrophoresis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068954
View explanation
Q21.

What happens to lighter particles during density-gradient centrifugation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068955
View explanation
Q22.

How does the speed of centrifugation affect the separation process?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068956
View explanation
Q23.

In a centrifuge, what component holds the samples during operation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068957
View explanation
Q24.

Which type of centrifuge is commonly used for clinical applications?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068958
View explanation
Q25.

What is the role of gravitational force in centrifugation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068959
View explanation
Q26.

Which of the following statements about ultracentrifugation is true?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068960
View explanation
Q27.

What type of sample would most likely require density-gradient centrifugation for analysis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068961
View explanation
Q28.

Why is it important to control the temperature during centrifugation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068962
View explanation
Q29.

Which of the following statements about differential centrifugation is correct?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068963
View explanation
Q30.

What is a common application of ultracentrifugation in biotechnology?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068964
View explanation
Q31.

Who is credited with designing the first simple microscope?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068979
View explanation
Q32.

What is the primary purpose of staining in microscopy?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068980
View explanation
Q33.

Which type of microscopy allows visualization of live cells without staining?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068981
View explanation
Q34.

In which microscopy technique are electrons used to create an image?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068982
View explanation
Q35.

What defines the resolution of a microscope?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068983
View explanation
Q36.

Bright field microscopy primarily uses which type of light?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068984
View explanation
Q37.

Which microscopy technique provides three-dimensional images?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068985
View explanation
Q38.

What property of a lens relates to its ability to bend light?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068986
View explanation
Q39.

Which microscope uses a laser to illuminate a fluorescently labeled specimen?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068987
View explanation
Q40.

What is a common application of transmission electron microscopy (TEM)?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068988
View explanation
Q41.

The formula for calculating magnification (M) is expressed as which of the following?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068989
View explanation
Q42.

Which of the following microscopy techniques is least likely to be used for live cell imaging?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068990
View explanation
Q43.

What is the main disadvantage of light microscopy compared to electron microscopy?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068991
View explanation
Q44.

Dark field microscopy is particularly useful for observing which type of specimens?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068992
View explanation
Q45.

Which microscopy technique is most effective for imaging complex structures like sub-cellular organelles?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068993
View explanation
Q46.

What is the primary purpose of ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068994
View explanation
Q47.

What is the primary purpose of chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068995
View explanation
Q48.

In a direct ELISA, which component is bound directly to the antigen?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068996
View explanation
Q49.

In chromatography, what is the mobile phase?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068997
View explanation
Q50.

Which type of ELISA is known for detecting the presence of antibodies in a sample via a two-step process?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068998
View explanation
Q51.

What term describes the output pattern of solute peaks in chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00068999
View explanation
Q52.

What advantage does indirect ELISA have over direct ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069000
View explanation
Q53.

Which type of chromatography uses a gas as the mobile phase?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069001
View explanation
Q54.

Which enzyme is commonly used in ELISA assays?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069002
View explanation
Q55.

In chromatography, what role does the stationary phase play?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069003
View explanation
Q56.

In competitive ELISA, what is being measured?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069004
View explanation
Q57.

How does the relative affinity of solute molecules affect chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069005
View explanation
Q58.

Why is a standard curve used in ELISA procedures?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069006
View explanation
Q59.

What is the purpose of pump systems in high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC)?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069007
View explanation
Q60.

What could be a disadvantage of direct ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069008
View explanation
Q61.

Which property allows solute separation in chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069009
View explanation
Q62.

What role does the substrate play in an ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069010
View explanation
Q63.

What distinguishes liquid chromatography from gas chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069011
View explanation
Q64.

What can result from cross-reactivity in ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069012
View explanation
Q65.

During chromatography, what can be concluded if two solutes emerge at the same time?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069013
View explanation
Q66.

What is a key characteristic of sandwich ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069014
View explanation
Q67.

Which of the following is NOT a common application of chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069015
View explanation
Q68.

Which of the following modifications of ELISA improves assay specificity?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069016
View explanation
Q69.

What is the key factor that can lead to poor resolution in chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069017
View explanation
Q70.

What type of sample can be analyzed using ELISA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069018
View explanation
Q71.

In which scenario would you employ ion-exchange chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069019
View explanation
Q72.

What is the main limitation of ELISA compared to other immunological assays?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069020
View explanation
Q73.

Why is it essential to select the appropriate stationary phase in chromatography?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069021
View explanation
Q74.

What would be an indicator of a successful chromatography separation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069022
View explanation
Q75.

What type of technique is Fluorescence In Situ Hybridisation (FISH)?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069023
View explanation
Q76.

What is the primary purpose of using fluorescent molecules in FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069024
View explanation
Q77.

Why is FISH particularly useful in diagnosing chromosomal abnormalities?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069025
View explanation
Q78.

Which component is essential for the execution of FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069026
View explanation
Q79.

How does FISH contribute to the field of genetic research?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069027
View explanation
Q80.

What kind of light is used in fluorescence microscopy for FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069028
View explanation
Q81.

In the context of FISH, what does the term 'probe' refer to?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069029
View explanation
Q82.

What is a limitation of FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069030
View explanation
Q83.

Which of the following is NOT an application of FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069031
View explanation
Q84.

What does the term 'in situ' in FISH mean?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069032
View explanation
Q85.

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridisation can be used to detect which of the following?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069033
View explanation
Q86.

In FISH, what is the consequence of improper probe binding?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069034
View explanation
Q87.

What is the step following the binding of fluorescent probes in FISH?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069035
View explanation
Q88.

Which technology can complement FISH for enhanced results?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069036
View explanation
Q89.

What is the primary application of UV/Visible spectroscopy?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069037
View explanation
Q90.

Which type of spectroscopy provides information about molecular structure using radio waves?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069038
View explanation
Q91.

What information is primarily gained from infrared spectroscopy?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069039
View explanation
Q92.

In spectroscopy, what does the term 'absorbance' refer to?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069040
View explanation
Q93.

Which spectroscopy technique is primarily used to analyze trace metals in a sample?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069041
View explanation
Q94.

What does Raman spectroscopy mainly identify?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069042
View explanation
Q95.

Which type of spectroscopy utilizes X-rays to assess elemental composition?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069043
View explanation
Q96.

What is the primary principle behind colorimetry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069044
View explanation
Q97.

Which application does photoluminescence spectroscopy serve?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069045
View explanation
Q98.

What does colorimetry measure in a solution?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069046
View explanation
Q99.

Which of the following techniques can determine geometric isomer configurations?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069047
View explanation
Q100.

Which spectroscopy method is useful for analyzing organic contaminants in water?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069048
View explanation
Q101.

What wavelength range does UV/Visible spectroscopy typically utilize?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069049
View explanation
Q102.

In mass spectrometry, what is the primary purpose of the ionization process?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069050
View explanation
Q103.

What does X-ray absorption spectroscopy reveal about a molecule?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069051
View explanation
Q104.

Which spectroscopy method is specifically used for analyzing the functional groups present in a sample?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069052
View explanation
Q105.

What is the primary purpose of mass spectrometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069053
View explanation
Q106.

Which component of a mass spectrometer is responsible for generating ions?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069054
View explanation
Q107.

What does 'm/z' stand for in mass spectrometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069055
View explanation
Q108.

What is the unit used to express mass in mass spectrometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069056
View explanation
Q109.

Which phase do compounds need to be in for mass spectrometry analysis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069057
View explanation
Q110.

How does the mass spectrometer differentiate between ions?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069058
View explanation
Q111.

What role does the detector in mass spectrometry play?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069059
View explanation
Q112.

Which type of mass spectrometry involves fragmentation of ions?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069060
View explanation
Q113.

What type of data is primarily output from a mass spectrometer?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069061
View explanation
Q114.

In mass spectrometry, the term 'fragmentation' refers to what?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069062
View explanation
Q115.

Why is mass spectrometry considered a powerful analytical technique?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069063
View explanation
Q116.

What does 'ionization' refer to in mass spectrometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069064
View explanation
Q117.

In which scenario would a high-resolution mass spectrometer be essential?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069065
View explanation
Q118.

What type of sample preparation might be necessary before mass spectrometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069066
View explanation
Q119.

Which application of mass spectrometry involves studying proteomics?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069067
View explanation
Q120.

What is the primary purpose of DNA sequencing?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069068
View explanation
Q121.

Which DNA sequencing method uses dideoxynucleotides for chain termination?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069069
View explanation
Q122.

What does Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) primarily improve upon compared to Sanger's method?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069070
View explanation
Q123.

In Sanger's method, what is the role of the labeled dideoxynucleotide?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069071
View explanation
Q124.

Which technique is often used to validate the results obtained from NGS?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069072
View explanation
Q125.

What are the two main types of DNA sequencing methods?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069073
View explanation
Q126.

What is the role of primers in DNA sequencing?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069074
View explanation
Q127.

Which aspect of DNA is primarily sequenced using NGS technology?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069075
View explanation
Q128.

Maxam and Gilbert method mainly relies on which principle?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069076
View explanation
Q129.

What is an important application of DNA sequencing in forensics?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069077
View explanation
Q130.

When applying Sanger sequencing, what happens to the bound dideoxynucleotide once incorporated?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069078
View explanation
Q131.

What characteristic of dideoxynucleotides prevents DNA strand elongation?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069079
View explanation
Q132.

Which sequencing technology has revolutionized genomic research in recent years?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069080
View explanation
Q133.

In which type of applications is Sanger sequencing still preferred today?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069081
View explanation
Q134.

What is the main purpose of flow cytometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069082
View explanation
Q135.

Which component of the flow cytometry system detects light after it is scattered by cells?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069083
View explanation
Q136.

What type of dye is commonly used in flow cytometry to label specific antibodies?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069084
View explanation
Q137.

In flow cytometry, how are cells characterized?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069085
View explanation
Q138.

What is the flow chamber's role in a flow cytometer?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069086
View explanation
Q139.

What advantage does flow cytometry provide over traditional microscopy?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069087
View explanation
Q140.

Which type of light detector is positioned perpendicular to the laser beam in a flow cytometer?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069088
View explanation
Q141.

Flow cytometry is often used in immunology to study what component of the immune cells?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069089
View explanation
Q142.

What type of data output does flow cytometry generate?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069090
View explanation
Q143.

Why is calibration important in flow cytometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069091
View explanation
Q144.

When analyzing cell samples in flow cytometry, what could lead to inaccurate results?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069092
View explanation
Q145.

What is one key limitation of flow cytometry?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069093
View explanation
Q146.

What is the typical sample type used for flow cytometry analysis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069094
View explanation
Q147.

Flow cytometry can be especially useful in which of the following fields?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069095
View explanation
Q148.

What is the primary use of DNA microarray technology?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069096
View explanation
Q149.

Which component on a DNA microarray chip is immobilized to capture target DNA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069097
View explanation
Q150.

What type of DNA is primarily analyzed using DNA microarrays?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069098
View explanation
Q151.

What is contained on a DNA microarray chip?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069099
View explanation
Q152.

Which of the following statements is true about hybridization in DNA microarrays?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069100
View explanation
Q153.

In a DNA microarray experiment, what does a high signal intensity typically indicate?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069101
View explanation
Q154.

What is one advantage of using DNA microarrays in research?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069102
View explanation
Q155.

Which of the following is a necessary step before performing a DNA microarray experiment?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069103
View explanation
Q156.

DNA microarray technology can help in identifying which of the following?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069104
View explanation
Q157.

Which type of array is used to examine gene expression by correlating mRNA levels?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069105
View explanation
Q158.

How are the DNA probes on a microarray chip arranged?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069106
View explanation
Q159.

What happens to the DNA during the hybridization process in microarray analysis?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069107
View explanation
Q160.

What type of technology is usually employed to detect hybridization events on microarrays?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069108
View explanation
Q161.

Which of the following techniques is complementary to DNA microarrays and is used to sequence DNA?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069109
View explanation
Q162.

In DNA microarray analysis, which factor could lead to false results?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069110
View explanation
Q163.

Which aspect is crucial for the success of a DNA microarray experiment?

Single Answer MCQ
Q-00069111
View explanation
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